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33. Which of the following components places ink directly on the media in an ink dispersion device?
A.Purge unit
B.Carriage
C.Print head
D.Ink supply
Answer: C
34. Which of the following components prevents the print head from clogging?
A.Purge unit
B.Absorption pads
C.Carriage
D.Ink supply
Answer: A
Saturday, December 20, 2008
Wednesday, December 17, 2008
PDI+ Certification PD1-001 Exam Demo (16)
PD1-001：please download PD1-001 in PDF format Demo
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31. Which of the following components contains the analog to digital converter?
A.Scanner section
B.Charging unit
C.ADF
D.Paper tray
Answer: A
32. Which of the following electrical components detects a change of state by blocking the infrared beam with a flag or actuator?
A.Reflector sensor
B.Magnetic switch
C.Toggle switch
D.Interrupt sensor
Answer: D
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Monday, December 15, 2008
PDI+ Certification PD1-001 Exam Demo (15)
PD1-001：please download PD1-001 in PDF format Demo
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29. Which of the following items can be used as a discharge lamp?
A.Halogen lamp
B.Light Emitting Diodes (LED)
C.Fuser lamp
D.Cleaning roller
Answer: B
30. Which of the following types of media would MOST likely cause above normal amounts of machine jamming?
A.Envelopes
B.Colored media
C.Letterhead
D.Pre punched
Answer: A
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29. Which of the following items can be used as a discharge lamp?
A.Halogen lamp
B.Light Emitting Diodes (LED)
C.Fuser lamp
D.Cleaning roller
Answer: B
30. Which of the following types of media would MOST likely cause above normal amounts of machine jamming?
A.Envelopes
B.Colored media
C.Letterhead
D.Pre punched
Answer: A
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Saturday, December 13, 2008
PDI+ Certification PD1-001 Exam Demo (14)
PD1-001：please download PD1-001 in PDF format Demo
27. Which of the following devices can route electrical signals only when activated by an external control signal?
A.Solenoid
B.Relay
C.Clutch
D.Capacitor
Answer: B
28. Which of the following failed components would be responsible for the fuser unit not heating properly?
A.Halogen lamps
B.Ball bearing
C.Hot roller
D.Pressure roller
Answer: A
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27. Which of the following devices can route electrical signals only when activated by an external control signal?
A.Solenoid
B.Relay
C.Clutch
D.Capacitor
Answer: B
28. Which of the following failed components would be responsible for the fuser unit not heating properly?
A.Halogen lamps
B.Ball bearing
C.Hot roller
D.Pressure roller
Answer: A
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Sunday, November 30, 2008
PDI+ Certification PD1-001 Exam Demo (13)
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PD1-001：please download PD1-001 in PDF format Demo
25. How should a service representative provide closure at the end of a call for a client?
A.Explain the issues of the call, the steps taken to resolve them and query the client if they have any additional needs.
B.Explain the solution to the issue and then provide the client with the technicians contact information in case they have any questions.
C.Give the client a technical explanation on the issue and how it was fixed; throw any faulty equipment in the clients garbage.
D.Proceed to the next service call, check back with the client in a week to see if they have any additional needs.
Answer: A
26. Which of the following is the FIRST step a technician should take when troubleshooting a device issue?
A.Gather information from the customer.
B.Isolate the problem on the device.
C.Read the service documentation for possible causes.
D.Check the parts life counters.
Answer: A
Thursday, November 27, 2008
PDI+ Certification PD1-001 Exam Demo (12)
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PD1-001：please download PD1-001 in PDF format Demo
23. Which of the following type of lamp is used for heating a fuser?
A.Xenon
B.Halogen
C.Incandescent
D.Light Emitting Diode
Answer: B
24. Scheduled preventative maintenance visits should be carried out:
A.after two unplanned service calls.
B.according to manufacturers specifications.
C.when the device is becoming unreliable.
D.every sixty days.
Answer: B
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PD1-001：please download PD1-001 in PDF format Demo
23. Which of the following type of lamp is used for heating a fuser?
A.Xenon
B.Halogen
C.Incandescent
D.Light Emitting Diode
Answer: B
24. Scheduled preventative maintenance visits should be carried out:
A.after two unplanned service calls.
B.according to manufacturers specifications.
C.when the device is becoming unreliable.
D.every sixty days.
Answer: B
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Tuesday, November 25, 2008
PDI+ Certification PD1-001 Exam Demo (11)
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PD1-001：please download PD1-001 in PDF format Demo
21. When onsite repairing a printer the technicians cell phone rings and it is a personal call, how should the technician handle this?
A.Answer the call and talk to your friend at the customer site.
B.Answer the call and tell the friend you will call them later.
C.Let it go to voicemail, call them back between service calls.
D.Let it ring and call the friend back when the customer leaves.
Answer: C
22. When arriving at the customers location, two different users describe the problem, and from their description it seems to be two separate problems. Which of the following is an appropriate step to take?
A.Ignore both of them and decide what the real problem is.
B.Set up a separate call for each problem.
C.Have them duplicate the problem at the device.
D.Ask a third person and see if the problem is the same thing.
Answer: C
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Killtest Practice Exams for CompTIA PDI+ Beta Exam PD1-001 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development.
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PD1-001：please download PD1-001 in PDF format Demo
21. When onsite repairing a printer the technicians cell phone rings and it is a personal call, how should the technician handle this?
A.Answer the call and talk to your friend at the customer site.
B.Answer the call and tell the friend you will call them later.
C.Let it go to voicemail, call them back between service calls.
D.Let it ring and call the friend back when the customer leaves.
Answer: C
22. When arriving at the customers location, two different users describe the problem, and from their description it seems to be two separate problems. Which of the following is an appropriate step to take?
A.Ignore both of them and decide what the real problem is.
B.Set up a separate call for each problem.
C.Have them duplicate the problem at the device.
D.Ask a third person and see if the problem is the same thing.
Answer: C
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Monday, November 24, 2008
PDI+ Certification PD1-001 Exam Demo (10)
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PD1-001：please download PD1-001 in PDF format Demo
19. Which of the following is a reason black toner is used in color printers?
A.It decreases the print speed in color laser printers.
B.It prevents moir patterns when printing color photographs.
C.It reduces the cost per page when printing gray scale documents.
D.It makes the color toner resistant to smudging when wet.
Answer: C
20. A technician is troubleshooting a network connectivity issue on a MFD and would like to eliminate the possibility of another device on the network having the same IP address. The technician should:
A.disconnect the MFD and ping the IP address.
B.disconnect the MFD and ping the subnet mask.
C.disconnect the MFD and ping the loopback address.
D.run the ipconfig command from the command prompt.
Answer: A
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Killtest Practice Exams for CompTIA PDI+ Beta Exam PD1-001 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development.
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PD1-001：please download PD1-001 in PDF format Demo
19. Which of the following is a reason black toner is used in color printers?
A.It decreases the print speed in color laser printers.
B.It prevents moir patterns when printing color photographs.
C.It reduces the cost per page when printing gray scale documents.
D.It makes the color toner resistant to smudging when wet.
Answer: C
20. A technician is troubleshooting a network connectivity issue on a MFD and would like to eliminate the possibility of another device on the network having the same IP address. The technician should:
A.disconnect the MFD and ping the IP address.
B.disconnect the MFD and ping the subnet mask.
C.disconnect the MFD and ping the loopback address.
D.run the ipconfig command from the command prompt.
Answer: A
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Saturday, November 22, 2008
PDI+ Certification PD1-001 Exam Demo (9)
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PD1-001：please download PD1-001 in PDF format Demo
17. Which of the following is the purpose of a torque limiter in a roller?
A.To reduce wear and tear on rollers.
B.To provide resistance but still allow some slippage.
C.To limit the amount of movement by media.
D.To make it easier to replace rollers.
Answer: B
18. Using the CMYK color model, the color purple is produced by combining cyan and which other color?
A.Green
B.Magenta
C.Yellow
D.Black
Answer: B
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Killtest Practice Exams for CompTIA PDI+ Beta Exam PD1-001 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development.
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PD1-001：please download PD1-001 in PDF format Demo
17. Which of the following is the purpose of a torque limiter in a roller?
A.To reduce wear and tear on rollers.
B.To provide resistance but still allow some slippage.
C.To limit the amount of movement by media.
D.To make it easier to replace rollers.
Answer: B
18. Using the CMYK color model, the color purple is produced by combining cyan and which other color?
A.Green
B.Magenta
C.Yellow
D.Black
Answer: B
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Wednesday, November 19, 2008
PDI+ Certification PD1-001 Exam Demo (8)
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PD1-001：please download PD1-001 in PDF format Demo
15. A customer is concerned about excessive media jamming in their device. Which of the following is the FIRST thing a technician should check?
A.Media feed rollers
B.Cassette drawers
C.Fusing section
D.Device log data
Answer: D
16. The polygon mirror is located in which of the following components?
A.Developer unit
B.Scanner unit
C.Fuser unit
D.Laser unit
Answer: D
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PD1-001：please download PD1-001 in PDF format Demo
15. A customer is concerned about excessive media jamming in their device. Which of the following is the FIRST thing a technician should check?
A.Media feed rollers
B.Cassette drawers
C.Fusing section
D.Device log data
Answer: D
16. The polygon mirror is located in which of the following components?
A.Developer unit
B.Scanner unit
C.Fuser unit
D.Laser unit
Answer: D
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Thursday, November 13, 2008
PDI+ Certification PD1-001 Exam Demo (7)
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13. Which of the following components is part of the ink dispersion system?
A.Print Heads
B.Cleaning heads
C.Pickup Roller
D.Charge Assembly
Answer: A
14. The proper safety guidelines for handling any device specific consumables can be found in which of the following documentation?
A.Material Safety Data Sheets
B.Installation Guides
C.Consumer Reports
D.Devices Parts Catalog
Answer: A
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Killtest Practice Exams for CompTIA PDI+ Beta Exam PD1-001 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development.
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PD1-001：please download PD1-001 in PDF format Demo
13. Which of the following components is part of the ink dispersion system?
A.Print Heads
B.Cleaning heads
C.Pickup Roller
D.Charge Assembly
Answer: A
14. The proper safety guidelines for handling any device specific consumables can be found in which of the following documentation?
A.Material Safety Data Sheets
B.Installation Guides
C.Consumer Reports
D.Devices Parts Catalog
Answer: A
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Wednesday, November 12, 2008
PDI+ Certification PD1-001 Exam Demo (6)
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PD1-001：please download PD1-001 in PDF format Demo
11. In which of the following sections of an MFP would a technician find a Xenon Lamp?
A.The paper feed section
B.The fuser section
C.The scanner section
D.The transfer section
Answer: C
12. During the photoconductor preparation step, residual charge can be removed by which of the following? (Select TWO).
A.Pressure
B.Oil
C.Light
D.Gravity
E.Electrical Charge
Answer: CE
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Killtest Practice Exams for CompTIA PDI+ Beta Exam PD1-001 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development.
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PD1-001：please download PD1-001 in PDF format Demo
11. In which of the following sections of an MFP would a technician find a Xenon Lamp?
A.The paper feed section
B.The fuser section
C.The scanner section
D.The transfer section
Answer: C
12. During the photoconductor preparation step, residual charge can be removed by which of the following? (Select TWO).
A.Pressure
B.Oil
C.Light
D.Gravity
E.Electrical Charge
Answer: CE
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Monday, November 10, 2008
PDI+ Certification PD1-001 Exam Demo (5)
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PD1-001：please download PD1-001 in PDF format Demo
9. A customer has installed a new computer on their network. They can print to the printer but the option for duplex printing is not available. All other computers have the option. Which of the following is the cause of the problem?
A.The new computer is printing to the wrong IP address.
B.The new computer is using the wrong protocol.
C.The driver port is not setup correctly.
D.The option has not been selected on the driver.
Answer: D
10. A polygon mirror is part of which of the following assemblies?
A.Laser unit
B.Developer unit
C.Charge assembly
D.Fuser assembly
Answer: A
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PD1-001：please download PD1-001 in PDF format Demo
9. A customer has installed a new computer on their network. They can print to the printer but the option for duplex printing is not available. All other computers have the option. Which of the following is the cause of the problem?
A.The new computer is printing to the wrong IP address.
B.The new computer is using the wrong protocol.
C.The driver port is not setup correctly.
D.The option has not been selected on the driver.
Answer: D
10. A polygon mirror is part of which of the following assemblies?
A.Laser unit
B.Developer unit
C.Charge assembly
D.Fuser assembly
Answer: A
Friday, November 7, 2008
PDI+ Certification PD1-001 Exam Demo (4)
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PD1-001：please download PD1-001 in PDF format Demo
7. How many CCDs are located in a single pass duplex ADF?
A.One
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B
8. When is it advisable to dump the waste toner from a technicians service vacuum?
A.When it is full.
B.It is not recommended.
C.Before performing preventative maintenance.
D.After each call.
Answer: B
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7. How many CCDs are located in a single pass duplex ADF?
A.One
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B
8. When is it advisable to dump the waste toner from a technicians service vacuum?
A.When it is full.
B.It is not recommended.
C.Before performing preventative maintenance.
D.After each call.
Answer: B
PDI+ Certification PD1-001 Exam Demo (3)
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PD1-001：please download PD1-001 in PDF format Demo
5. Which of the following would be the BEST process for the technician to follow when beginning to diagnose a unit at a customers site?
A.Check the printers error log, and then inform the primary user what the issue is.
B.Go directly to the printer and investigate any issues that are found.
C.Investigate the printers status, then ask the primary user to write down what they think is wrong.
D.Gather information from the primary user, and then evaluate the printers condition.
Answer: D
6. Which of the following utilities could be used to determine a subnet mask?
A.PING
B.NSLOOKUP
C.TRACERT
D.IPCONFIG
Answer: D
Killtest Practice Exams for CompTIA PDI+ Beta Exam PD1-001 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development.
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PD1-001：please download PD1-001 in PDF format Demo
5. Which of the following would be the BEST process for the technician to follow when beginning to diagnose a unit at a customers site?
A.Check the printers error log, and then inform the primary user what the issue is.
B.Go directly to the printer and investigate any issues that are found.
C.Investigate the printers status, then ask the primary user to write down what they think is wrong.
D.Gather information from the primary user, and then evaluate the printers condition.
Answer: D
6. Which of the following utilities could be used to determine a subnet mask?
A.PING
B.NSLOOKUP
C.TRACERT
D.IPCONFIG
Answer: D
Wednesday, November 5, 2008
PDI+ Certification PD1-001 Exam Demo (2)
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PD1-001：please download PD1-001 in PDF format Demo
3. The customer has a dedicated ink jet fax machine that is used to send and receive faxes only from the corporate office. The user complains of streaks on the received faxes while the internal self-prints are fine. Which of the following should a technician recommend?
A.Clean the scanner glass on the distant machine.
B.Clean the scanner glass on the local machine.
C.Clean the printer head on the local machine.
D.Call the telephone company to increase the line signal level.
Answer: A
4. Which of the following stages in the laser print process attracts toner to the latent image on the photoconductor?
A.Writing
B.Fusing
C.Development
D.Transfer
Answer: C
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3. The customer has a dedicated ink jet fax machine that is used to send and receive faxes only from the corporate office. The user complains of streaks on the received faxes while the internal self-prints are fine. Which of the following should a technician recommend?
A.Clean the scanner glass on the distant machine.
B.Clean the scanner glass on the local machine.
C.Clean the printer head on the local machine.
D.Call the telephone company to increase the line signal level.
Answer: A
4. Which of the following stages in the laser print process attracts toner to the latent image on the photoconductor?
A.Writing
B.Fusing
C.Development
D.Transfer
Answer: C
Tuesday, November 4, 2008
PDI+ Certification PD1-001 Exam Demo (1)
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PD1-001：please download PD1-001 in PDF format Demo
1. Which of the following functions is associated with the developer unit?
A.Supplies toner to the photoconductor
B.Charges the surface of the photoconductor
C.Writes the latent image on the photoconductor
D.Cleans the photoconductor
Answer: A
2. An encoder sensor typically detects:
A.paper position.
B.shaft rotation.
C.magnetic flux.
D.laser beam strength.
Answer: B
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PD1-001：please download PD1-001 in PDF format Demo
1. Which of the following functions is associated with the developer unit?
A.Supplies toner to the photoconductor
B.Charges the surface of the photoconductor
C.Writes the latent image on the photoconductor
D.Cleans the photoconductor
Answer: A
2. An encoder sensor typically detects:
A.paper position.
B.shaft rotation.
C.magnetic flux.
D.laser beam strength.
Answer: B
Monday, November 3, 2008
CompTIA Server+ SK0-002 Exam
VUE/Prometric Code：sk0-002Exam Name：SERVER+ EXAM 2004 Objectives
Questions and Answers：941 Q&As
Price：$99
Updated：2008-09-01
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Saturday, November 1, 2008
Killtest CDIA+ 225-030 Exam Q&A
VUE/Prometric Code：225-030
Exam Name：CDIA+ Certification
Questions and Answers：170 Q&As
Price：$99
Updated：2008-09-01
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Thursday, October 30, 2008
Killtest PDI+ Certification PD1-001 Exam
Questions and Answers：861 Q&As
Price：$99
Updated：2008-09-01
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Wednesday, October 29, 2008
Killtest CompTIA A+ 220-602 Exam Braindump
VUE/Prometric Code：220-602
Exam Name：CompTIA A+ 220-602 Exam(IT Technician designation pathway)
Questions and Answers：571 Q&As
Price：$99
Updated：2008-10-21
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Sunday, October 26, 2008
Citrix Other Certification
It is well known that Citrix Other Certification certification training has a great demand in IT industry area. In recent years, the Citrix Other Certification certification has become a global standard for many successful IT companies.
Citrix Other Certification training has become so popular today that you will often find many Citrix Other Certification courses and online Citrix Other Certification training resources being offered in your city, regardless of where you live on this planet. To become an Citrix Other Certification Professional, you will need to learn all the Citrix Other Certification test objectives. Study them with the use of an Citrix Other Certification guide and then test and evaluate your knowledge via our leading edge Citrix Other Certification training resources.
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1Y0-900：Citrix Provisioning Server 4.5: Administration
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1Y0-264：Ctrix Presentation Server 4.5: Support Exam
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1Y0-900：Citrix Provisioning Server 4.5: Administration
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Saturday, October 25, 2008
Killtest CompTIA A+ 220-602 Exam
VUE/Prometric Code：220-602Exam Name：CompTIA A+ 220-602 Exam(IT Technician designation pathway)
Questions and Answers：571 Q&As
Price：$99
Updated：2008-09-01
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Friday, October 24, 2008
1Y0-456 Printable Practice Exam Details
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Wednesday, October 22, 2008
Killtest CompTIAHTI+ HT0-201 Exam
VUE/Prometric Code：HT0-201
Exam Name：CEA-CompTIA DHTI+ Exam
Questions and Answers：186 Q&As
Price：$99
Updated：2008-09-01
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Tuesday, October 21, 2008
The latest Killtest 220-304 A+ Braindumps
VUE/Prometric Code：220-304
Exam Name：A+ Core OS Technologies Exam - Arabic or Greak only Questions and Answers：233 Q&As
Price：$99
Updated：2008-09-01
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Sunday, October 19, 2008
Killtest CompTIA 220-601 Braindumps (2)
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3.Which of the following are considered plug and play technologies in a laptop?
A.SATA
B.RAID
C.USB
D.EIDE
Correct:C
4.Which of the following are primary differences between a laptop and a desktop CPU? (Select TWO).Killtest A+ 220-601 Exam.
A.heat production
B.L2 Cache
C.clock speed
D.front side bus
E.power consumption
Correct:A E
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3.Which of the following are considered plug and play technologies in a laptop?
A.SATA
B.RAID
C.USB
D.EIDE
Correct:C
4.Which of the following are primary differences between a laptop and a desktop CPU? (Select TWO).Killtest A+ 220-601 Exam.
A.heat production
B.L2 Cache
C.clock speed
D.front side bus
E.power consumption
Correct:A E
Friday, October 17, 2008
CompTIA A+ Essentials 220-601 Exam
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1.Which of the following has to be installed on a laptop in order to use a compact flash storage device?
A.a multi-media card reader
B.USB 2.0 drivers
C.USB 1.1 drivers
D.an enhanced 1.44 floppy drive
Correct:A
2.When a user is typing on a laptop the cursor sometimes moves on its own. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
A.The keyboard driver needs to be updated.
B.There are conflicting serial ports.
C.The mouse driver needs to be updated.
D.The user is brushing the touch pad while typing.
Correct:D
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1.Which of the following has to be installed on a laptop in order to use a compact flash storage device?
A.a multi-media card reader
B.USB 2.0 drivers
C.USB 1.1 drivers
D.an enhanced 1.44 floppy drive
Correct:A
2.When a user is typing on a laptop the cursor sometimes moves on its own. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
A.The keyboard driver needs to be updated.
B.There are conflicting serial ports.
C.The mouse driver needs to be updated.
D.The user is brushing the touch pad while typing.
Correct:D
Thursday, October 16, 2008
Killtest IT Project+ Certification (2003 Objectives) pk0-002
VUE/Prometric Code：pk0-002
Exam Name：IT Project+ Certification (2003 Objectives)
Questions and Answers：401 Q&As
Price：$99
Updated：2008-09-01
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Wednesday, October 15, 2008
testpassport offer the latest 220-604 Braindumps
High quality and Value for the 220-604 Exam.Testpassport Practice Exams for CompTIA A+ 220-604 Exam(Depot Tech designation pathway) 220-604 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development.100% Guarantee to Pass Your A+ exam and get your A+ Certification. We guarantee your success in the first attempt. If you do not pass the 220-604 exam (CompTIA A+ 220-604 Exam(Depot Tech designation pathway)) on your first attempt we will give you a FULL REFUND of your purchasing fee AND send you another same value product for free. TestPassport will help you to pass the 220-604 exam. TestPassport 220-604 contains 230 questions, multiple choice answers.testpassport 220-604 Downloadable.Printable Exams (in PDF format) Our Exam 220-604 Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take your A+ exam. The A+ Certification details are researched and produced by Professional Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical. You may get A+ exam questions from different web sites or books, but logic is the key. Our Product will help you not only pass in the first A+ exam try, but also save your valuable time .Comprehensive questions with complete details about 220-604 exam. 220-604 exam questions accompanied by exhibits. Verified Answers Researched by Industry Experts and almost 100% correct. Drag and Drop questions as experienced in the Real A+ exam. 220-604 exam questions updated on regular basis. Like actual A+ Certification exams, 220-604 exam preparation is in multiple-choice questions (MCQs). Tested by many real A+ exams before publishing. Try free A+ exam demo before you decide to buy it in http://www.killtest.com. Killtest will help you to pass the 220-604 exam.
Tuesday, October 14, 2008
CompTIA Security+ sy0-101 Exam Demo
6. A large company wants to deploy an FTP server to support file transfers between business customers and partners. Which of the following should the security specialist consider before making these changes?www.killtest.com
A. FTP can be deployed on an isolated server but is unencrypted.
B. FTP can consume significant bandwidth.
C. FTP facilitates business-to-business file transfers and has few risks.
D. FTP transfers data in an unencrypted format.
Answer: D
7. WEP uses which of the following stream ciphers?
A. RC2
B. RC4
C. IKE
D. 3DES
Answer: B
8. A common tool used for wireless sniffing and war driving is:www.killtest.com
A. S/MIME.
B. Sam Spade.
C. NetStumbler.
D. NESSUS.
Answer: C
9. Which of the following is a common type of attack on web servers?
A. Birthday
B. Buffer overflow
C. Spam
D. Brute force
Answer: B
10. Which of the following would be needed to ensure that a user who has received an email cannot claim that the email was not received?www.killtest.com
A. Anti-aliasing
B. Data integrity
C. Asymmetric cryptography
D. Non-repudiation
Answer: D
A. FTP can be deployed on an isolated server but is unencrypted.
B. FTP can consume significant bandwidth.
C. FTP facilitates business-to-business file transfers and has few risks.
D. FTP transfers data in an unencrypted format.
Answer: D
7. WEP uses which of the following stream ciphers?
A. RC2
B. RC4
C. IKE
D. 3DES
Answer: B
8. A common tool used for wireless sniffing and war driving is:www.killtest.com
A. S/MIME.
B. Sam Spade.
C. NetStumbler.
D. NESSUS.
Answer: C
9. Which of the following is a common type of attack on web servers?
A. Birthday
B. Buffer overflow
C. Spam
D. Brute force
Answer: B
10. Which of the following would be needed to ensure that a user who has received an email cannot claim that the email was not received?www.killtest.com
A. Anti-aliasing
B. Data integrity
C. Asymmetric cryptography
D. Non-repudiation
Answer: D
Monday, October 13, 2008
CompTIA Security+ sy0-101 Exam Demo
1. A VPN typically provides a remote access link from one host to another over:
A. an intranet.
B. a modem.
C. a network interface card.
D. the Internet. 1k0-002
Answer: D
2. IPSec uses which of the following protocols to provide traffic security? (Select TWO).
A. SSH
B. AH
C. PPTP
D. SSL
E. L2TP
F. Encapsulating Security Protocol (ESP) 9l0-509
Answer: BF
3. The employees at a company are using instant messaging on company networked computers. The MOST important security issue to address when using instant messaging is that instant messaging:
A. communications are a drain on bandwidth.
B. communications are open and unprotected.
C. has no common protocol.
D. uses weak encryption. a00-212
Answer: B
4. Which of the following would be BEST to do when network file sharing is needed? (Select TWO).
A. Allow read permissions only for unauthenticated users.
B. Create local users who have no access to the shares.
C. Allow access to administrators only.
D. Place the share on a different volume than the operating system.
E. Set a disk quota. e20-520
Answer: DE
5. Which of the following programming techniques should be used to prevent buffer overflow attacks?
A. Input validation
B. Nested loops
C. Signed applets
D. Automatic updates 1z0-043
Answer:A
A. an intranet.
B. a modem.
C. a network interface card.
D. the Internet. 1k0-002
Answer: D
2. IPSec uses which of the following protocols to provide traffic security? (Select TWO).
A. SSH
B. AH
C. PPTP
D. SSL
E. L2TP
F. Encapsulating Security Protocol (ESP) 9l0-509
Answer: BF
3. The employees at a company are using instant messaging on company networked computers. The MOST important security issue to address when using instant messaging is that instant messaging:
A. communications are a drain on bandwidth.
B. communications are open and unprotected.
C. has no common protocol.
D. uses weak encryption. a00-212
Answer: B
4. Which of the following would be BEST to do when network file sharing is needed? (Select TWO).
A. Allow read permissions only for unauthenticated users.
B. Create local users who have no access to the shares.
C. Allow access to administrators only.
D. Place the share on a different volume than the operating system.
E. Set a disk quota. e20-520
Answer: DE
5. Which of the following programming techniques should be used to prevent buffer overflow attacks?
A. Input validation
B. Nested loops
C. Signed applets
D. Automatic updates 1z0-043
Answer:A
Friday, October 10, 2008
CompTIA A+ 220-604 Exam Demo
from http://www.killtest.com 6. Which of the following should a technician use to clean the glass on a flatbed scanner?A. glass cleaner and paper towelsB. dish soap and a wet towelC. a soft, pre-moistened towel or wipe?killtest help pass any it certifications D. dry paper towelsAnswer: C?7. Which of the following printers sprays the paper? (Select TWO).A. impact? B. laserC. thermalD. solid ink?E. ink jetAnswer: DE?8. Which of the following item colorizes the paper using a two-component laser printer?A. ribbonB. developerC. laser beam?? killtest help pass any it certifications D. tonerAnswer: D?9. Which of the following printers uses a charged drum to transfer toner to paper??? pd1-001A. thermalB. laserC. ink jetD. impactAnswer: B10. A technician has added memory to a laser printer. To allow the printer driver software to use the additional memory, the amount of memory should be modified in:?? RF0-001A. the Device Settings tab in Printer Properties.B. Device Manager by clicking on the printer’s driver and selecting Parameters.C. Device Manager by selecting Upgrade Driver.D. the Color Management tab in Printer Properties.Answer: A
Wednesday, October 8, 2008
CompTIA Network+ Certification
About? CompTIA Network+ Certification
CompTIA Network+validates the knowledge and skills of networking professionals. It is an international, vendor-neutral certification that recognizes a technician’s ability to describe the features and functions of networking components and to install, configure and troubleshoot basic networking hardware, protocols and services. Although not a prerequisite, it is recommended that CompTIA Network+ candidates have at least nine months of experience in network support or administration or adequate academic training, along with a CompTIA A+ certification .
The demand for skilled network support professionals continues to grow, and CompTIA Network+ is a valuable credential to help start or enhance a networking career. In fact, many IT certifications integrate CompTIA Network+ into their curriculums. Microsoft added CompTIA Network+ into their Microsoft Certified Systems Administrator (MCSA) program, and other corporations such as Novell, Cisco, HP, Lotus and 3Com also recognize CompTIA Network+ as part of their certification tracks.
CompTIA Network+ and Related CompTIA Certifications
CompTIA Network+ prepares networking professionals to earn vendor-neutral certifications in other areas of expertise. CompTIA Network+ certified professionals who want to diversify their base knowledge in other areas should also consider pursuing CompTIA Security+, Server+ or Convergence+ .
CompTIA Network+validates the knowledge and skills of networking professionals. It is an international, vendor-neutral certification that recognizes a technician’s ability to describe the features and functions of networking components and to install, configure and troubleshoot basic networking hardware, protocols and services. Although not a prerequisite, it is recommended that CompTIA Network+ candidates have at least nine months of experience in network support or administration or adequate academic training, along with a CompTIA A+ certification .
The demand for skilled network support professionals continues to grow, and CompTIA Network+ is a valuable credential to help start or enhance a networking career. In fact, many IT certifications integrate CompTIA Network+ into their curriculums. Microsoft added CompTIA Network+ into their Microsoft Certified Systems Administrator (MCSA) program, and other corporations such as Novell, Cisco, HP, Lotus and 3Com also recognize CompTIA Network+ as part of their certification tracks.
CompTIA Network+ and Related CompTIA Certifications
CompTIA Network+ prepares networking professionals to earn vendor-neutral certifications in other areas of expertise. CompTIA Network+ certified professionals who want to diversify their base knowledge in other areas should also consider pursuing CompTIA Security+, Server+ or Convergence+ .
Tuesday, October 7, 2008
compTIA xk0-001 Exam
When we first started offering the XK0-001 exam questions and answers and exam simulator, we never dreamed we would be making the claims that we do now in the form of our unbelievable guarantee.? testpassport.com GUARANTEES that you will pass your XK0-001 exam on your first attempt after using one of our XK0-001 training products.? That’s right, with the 100% pass rate, the exam tools that we have created for you are so good - we can’t help but guarantee your results.Known also as the CompTIA Linux+ XK0-001 (XK0-001), this exam plays an integral role in obtaining your certification.? All CompTIA certification exams are extremely detailed and cover many different technological areas.? We designed the XK0-001 questions and answers for this very purpose, to prepare you for the unexpected.? Beyond the testing center, the skills you learn and the knowledge you confirm using the XK0-001 practice exams and exam simulators will translate directly into your daily work environment.?When available, take advantage of the testpassport XK0-001 Value Pack and save time and money while developing your skills to pass your ‘Linux+ XK0-001 Exam’ and grab that CompTIA certification.? Let us help you climb that ladder of success and pass your XK0-001 now!
Monday, October 6, 2008
Walking The Talk Of CompTIA A+ Certification(2)
. . . was a good morale booster when it came to advancing my education and career. Part of my curriculum revolved around the Microsoft Networking track and not only did I graduate with a 3.8 GPA, I re-entered the career search with an Microsoft Certified Systems Administrator card. MCSA at the time was a new offering from Microsoft and the A+ certification wasn’t being applied toward the exams. That’s 4 MCP tests (I passed them all on the first try).
With my new found Degree and a fancy $400 MCSA card in my wallet I left Compaq in search of the ultimate CIO position. This is where it gets tough. With a failing economy and the corporate initiative to save a dollar, outsourcing was at its peak. Even with my extensive hardware background, I was still considered a “paper” MCSA due to the fact that I had no actual “real-world” experience managing a medium to large size network.
I used my skills as a field service representative for a computer repair company, but fixing Mary Jane’s USB printer still wasn’t the CIO position I had hoped for. Possessing the A+ certification did however lead to having a great advantage over other non-certified technicians who had applied for the position. I must say though, the face-to-face interaction with clients in the field was priceless experience for my next position. Inbound technical support for Earthlink was definitely challenging. When you get a call from “blind” Sue and she has to yell your directions to deaf “George”, you know you have made it into the real trenches of the IT world. My previous hardware and field service experience led to me being offered another “special-projects” mission with Earthlink. (I could tell you, but I’d have to kill you LOL)
Then one day I called an old friend just to chit-chat and he said “Hey, Do you want to build my website?”. Why not? I wasn’t really doing anything in the evenings anyway. I discovered, upon logging into the web site control panel, that the hosting provider was using this thing called PHP/MySQL. I had tinkered with Access and Oracle, but I still had no real knowledge of scripting (PHP), short of good old MS DOS batch files. And I definitely had no knowledge of databases.
GOOGLE to the rescue! I spent the next 5 days huddled in my little corner trying to get a hold on my friends website. The “if at first you don’t succeed” motto paid off. On the sixth day I had a working PHP/MySQL content management system. It seems I had the developing bug. After 2 more years of hammering PHP/MySQL, I landed my first professional contract with the largest newspaper in the city. After eight weeks of intense PHP/SybaseSQL coding, with some XML thrown in for good measure, I had completed my contract on time and on budget.
Here I am, 4 years later; an A+ certified computer technician with an Associates degree in computer science and an MCSA. I’m doing web development and am involved with content creation for ProProfs A+ certification school. It just goes to show that you never know which direction your IT career is going to go.And that is the story of my career path. My experience with employers in regards to the A+ certification thus far has been that most employers know what the certification is and relish the fact that you have one. While this is a 50/50 coin toss, I can say from my experience that having the CompTIA A+ certification is an advantage. Not only is it a great entry-level moral booster when preparing for further educational and career moves, it will always put ahead of your non-certified competitors in the job market.
ProProfs A+ Certification School provides free study aids for the A+ exam such as study guides, practice exams, practice questions and testing software are located at http://www.testpassport.com/CompTIA/more certifications...1K0-002, 9L0-509, A00-212 , E20-520 , 1z0-043 , ct0-101 ...
With my new found Degree and a fancy $400 MCSA card in my wallet I left Compaq in search of the ultimate CIO position. This is where it gets tough. With a failing economy and the corporate initiative to save a dollar, outsourcing was at its peak. Even with my extensive hardware background, I was still considered a “paper” MCSA due to the fact that I had no actual “real-world” experience managing a medium to large size network.
I used my skills as a field service representative for a computer repair company, but fixing Mary Jane’s USB printer still wasn’t the CIO position I had hoped for. Possessing the A+ certification did however lead to having a great advantage over other non-certified technicians who had applied for the position. I must say though, the face-to-face interaction with clients in the field was priceless experience for my next position. Inbound technical support for Earthlink was definitely challenging. When you get a call from “blind” Sue and she has to yell your directions to deaf “George”, you know you have made it into the real trenches of the IT world. My previous hardware and field service experience led to me being offered another “special-projects” mission with Earthlink. (I could tell you, but I’d have to kill you LOL)
Then one day I called an old friend just to chit-chat and he said “Hey, Do you want to build my website?”. Why not? I wasn’t really doing anything in the evenings anyway. I discovered, upon logging into the web site control panel, that the hosting provider was using this thing called PHP/MySQL. I had tinkered with Access and Oracle, but I still had no real knowledge of scripting (PHP), short of good old MS DOS batch files. And I definitely had no knowledge of databases.
GOOGLE to the rescue! I spent the next 5 days huddled in my little corner trying to get a hold on my friends website. The “if at first you don’t succeed” motto paid off. On the sixth day I had a working PHP/MySQL content management system. It seems I had the developing bug. After 2 more years of hammering PHP/MySQL, I landed my first professional contract with the largest newspaper in the city. After eight weeks of intense PHP/SybaseSQL coding, with some XML thrown in for good measure, I had completed my contract on time and on budget.
Here I am, 4 years later; an A+ certified computer technician with an Associates degree in computer science and an MCSA. I’m doing web development and am involved with content creation for ProProfs A+ certification school. It just goes to show that you never know which direction your IT career is going to go.And that is the story of my career path. My experience with employers in regards to the A+ certification thus far has been that most employers know what the certification is and relish the fact that you have one. While this is a 50/50 coin toss, I can say from my experience that having the CompTIA A+ certification is an advantage. Not only is it a great entry-level moral booster when preparing for further educational and career moves, it will always put ahead of your non-certified competitors in the job market.
ProProfs A+ Certification School provides free study aids for the A+ exam such as study guides, practice exams, practice questions and testing software are located at http://www.testpassport.com/CompTIA/more certifications...1K0-002, 9L0-509, A00-212 , E20-520 , 1z0-043 , ct0-101 ...
Sunday, October 5, 2008
CompTIA A+ 220-602 Exam Demo
6. A technician is creating a record of users that have successfully logged on to a workstation. Which of the following active log files should be checked?Killtest A+ 220-602 Exam
A. security
B. information
C. system
D. application
Answer: A
7. In Windows XP Professional, which of the following would indicate file or folder encryption? (Select TWO).Killtest A+ 220-602 Exam
A. A yellow colored text for the file or folder name.
B. A green colored text for the file or folder name.
C. Examining the file or folder attributes.
D. A blue colored text for the file or folder name.
E. A green colored Icon for the file or folder.
Answer: BC
8. Which of the following is the default number of incorrect login attempts in Windows XP Professional not connected to a domain before Windows disables the login prompt temporarily?Killtest A+ 220-602 Exam
A. 6
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
Answer: C
9. Making data appear to come from somewhere other than the originating point is known as:
A. social engineering.
B. spoofing.
C. hacking.
D. cracking.
Answer:B
10. A technician is asked to recover data from a computer at a customers site. After recovering the data, the technician discovers illegal material on the hard drive. Which of the following actions should the technician take?Killtest A+ 220-602 Exam
A. Warn the customer that the customer is breaking the law.
B. Notify the supervisor and delete the material.
C. Warn the customer that the customer is breaking the law and delete the material.
D. Notify law enforcement authorities and leave the customer site.?
Answer: D
from: http://www.killtest.com/A/220-602.asp
A. security
B. information
C. system
D. application
Answer: A
7. In Windows XP Professional, which of the following would indicate file or folder encryption? (Select TWO).Killtest A+ 220-602 Exam
A. A yellow colored text for the file or folder name.
B. A green colored text for the file or folder name.
C. Examining the file or folder attributes.
D. A blue colored text for the file or folder name.
E. A green colored Icon for the file or folder.
Answer: BC
8. Which of the following is the default number of incorrect login attempts in Windows XP Professional not connected to a domain before Windows disables the login prompt temporarily?Killtest A+ 220-602 Exam
A. 6
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
Answer: C
9. Making data appear to come from somewhere other than the originating point is known as:
A. social engineering.
B. spoofing.
C. hacking.
D. cracking.
Answer:B
10. A technician is asked to recover data from a computer at a customers site. After recovering the data, the technician discovers illegal material on the hard drive. Which of the following actions should the technician take?Killtest A+ 220-602 Exam
A. Warn the customer that the customer is breaking the law.
B. Notify the supervisor and delete the material.
C. Warn the customer that the customer is breaking the law and delete the material.
D. Notify law enforcement authorities and leave the customer site.?
Answer: D
from: http://www.killtest.com/A/220-602.asp
Friday, October 3, 2008
CompTIA A+ 220-602 Exam Demo
More exam: 1K0-002, 9L0-509 , A00-212 , E20-520 , 1z0-043 , ct0-101 ...From: http://www.testpassport.com 1. A computers internal power supply fan has stopped running causing the computer to overheat. Which of the following actions should a technician take?A. Open the power supply and visually inspect for faulty wiring to the power supply fan.B. Open the power supply and see whether the power supply fan can be replaced.C. Set up additional case fans for extra cooling of the power supply.D. Replace the power supply and discard the power supply correctly.?Answer: D??2. A technician is asked to bring a server that has been replaced from the server room to a computer repair area. Which of the following should the technician consider before doing this job?A. The width of the server.B. Whether the server is on wheels.C. What services are running on the server.D. The manufacturer of the server.?Answer: B??3. In an electrically unstable environment where brownouts are a regular occurrence, which of the following would be BEST to protect a computer?A. an anti-static padB. a power stripC. an uninterruptible power supply (UPS)D. a surge protector?Answer: C?4. Network Address Translation (NAT) provides additional security for users behind a gateway router by:A. limiting users from accessing web sites on a blocked site list.B. blocking users on the public Internet from initiating connections to computers on a local network.C. blocking users on a local network from initiating connections to computers on the public Internet.D. preventing access to the Internet during non-working hours.Answer: B5. A user reports receiving an email from the user’s bank requesting that due to a bank audit, the user must click a link in the email and enter the username, password, and account number. This may be an example of:A. biometric authentication.B. standard bank security practices.C. social engineering.D. bank marketing survey.Answer: C
Monday, September 29, 2008
CompTIA 220-601 exam Demo
1. Which of the following has to be installed on a laptop in order to use a compact flash storage device?
A. a multi-media card reader
B. USB 2.0 drivers
C. USB 1.1 drivers
D. an enhanced 1.44 floppy drive
Answer: A
2. When a user is typing on a laptop the cursor sometimes moves on its own. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
A. The keyboard driver needs to be updated.
B. There are conflicting serial ports.
C. The mouse driver needs to be updated.
D. The user is brushing the touch pad while typing.
Answer: D
3. Which of the following are considered plug and play technologies in a laptop?
A. SATA
B. RAID
C. USB
D. EIDE
Answer: C
4. Which of the following are primary differences between a laptop and a desktop CPU? (Select TWO).
A. heat production
B. L2 Cache
C. clock speed
D. front side bus
E. power consumption
Answer: AE
5. A client reports that the laptop is not performing a complete charge of the battery. Which of the following actions should be taken FIRST?
A. Update the BIOS.
B. Run the battery calibrator.
C. Reinstall the ACPI drivers.
D. Replace the power adapter.
Answer: B
more Q&A: http://www.killtest.com
A. a multi-media card reader
B. USB 2.0 drivers
C. USB 1.1 drivers
D. an enhanced 1.44 floppy drive
Answer: A
2. When a user is typing on a laptop the cursor sometimes moves on its own. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
A. The keyboard driver needs to be updated.
B. There are conflicting serial ports.
C. The mouse driver needs to be updated.
D. The user is brushing the touch pad while typing.
Answer: D
3. Which of the following are considered plug and play technologies in a laptop?
A. SATA
B. RAID
C. USB
D. EIDE
Answer: C
4. Which of the following are primary differences between a laptop and a desktop CPU? (Select TWO).
A. heat production
B. L2 Cache
C. clock speed
D. front side bus
E. power consumption
Answer: AE
5. A client reports that the laptop is not performing a complete charge of the battery. Which of the following actions should be taken FIRST?
A. Update the BIOS.
B. Run the battery calibrator.
C. Reinstall the ACPI drivers.
D. Replace the power adapter.
Answer: B
more Q&A: http://www.killtest.com
Sunday, September 28, 2008
Which CompTIA certification is right for me?
Which CompTIA certification is right for me?Achieving a CompTIA IT certification is a great way to begin your career in IT. Choose from the list below the job role that most resembles your career goals to find out which IT certification is right for you.?Future IT Job Roles Which CompTIA certification applies?Database Development and Administration Design and form databases so users can create data queries and interpret results; CompTIA Project + manage growth of the database; keep data secure and create security procedures; CompTIA Security+ implement backup and recovery processes; maintain system security and reliability. CompTIA Server+? ?________________________________________?Network Devices Troubleshoot and maintain desktop and laptop computers, CompTIA Linux+ computer devices such as PDAs,computer peripherals, CompTIA Network+ and other devices that connect to a network or computer including cellular telephones, CompTIA Security+palm computers, beepers, etc. Manage a LAN and administer the LAN server for a small group. CompTIA Server+?________________________________________?Network InfrastructureTroubleshoot and maintain the wired, wireless or satellite network. CompTIA A+Includes data, voice and video transmission, routing and switching on these networks. CEA-CompTIA DHTI+Requires working with integrated services and multi-vendor products. CompTIA Project+Includes monitoring, maintenance, upgrades and security. CompTIA Network+CompTIA Security+ ?________________________________________?Programming Write, maintain, and update computer code. CompTIA A+At the direction of a senior programmer, CompTIA Linux+perform computer programming for applications or portions of applications. CompTIA Project+Requires knowledge of a computer program including C, C++, Java, etc. ?________________________________________?Technical Writing Design and write documentation and user guides for technology equipment and systems such as computers, CompTIA A+computer equipment, and software products.. CompTIA Project+Research technology documentation requirements. Design and write user manuals. ?________________________________________?Web Development and Administration Writing and debugging code as directed by Senior Programmers, CompTIA e-Biz+Software Engineers and/or Systems Analysts. Analyze, design, develop, adapt, CompTIA Linux+test and maintain computer and Internet-based applications. Use development tools and programming languages in creating and testing the software.
Friday, September 26, 2008
Passed The Security+ Exam
I took my first shot at the Security+ exam, and with a score of 858. It’s great to be past this one.I’ll go over a little bit about the exam here first. Then I’ll explain what I did for studying so others can get an idea of what they can do to prepare for the exam.I think I had about 6 or 7 questions on Access Controls, which most people say there are a lot on this exam. I even had two questions back-to-back that were almost the same with a few words changed. Some of the study material from ProProfs helped me on one of these questions because of a key word that I associated with RBAC.testpassport help you pass any exam!Of course, there were quite a bit of questions on cryptography as well. There was one question on PKI certificates that tripped me up because it wasn’t covered at all in the Sybex or Syngress books, at least that I could remember. I have a lot of knowledge with relational databases; so I used this to try to figure out the answer. I figured, if a Website holds a certificate, and they serve customers, then they have one certificate serving either one or many customers giving either a one-to-many or a one-to-one relationship. However, from what little I could find on the Internet, I believe the relationships are many-to-one and many-to-many. I’m still not exactly sure. I can’t find any explanation for this, and it makes me confused on the reasoning . It’s too bad the books didn’t explain it.
Wednesday, September 24, 2008
RFID+ Certification RF0-001 Practice Test RF0-001 Practice Exam
RF0-001 practice exam covers all the practice test objectives to pass RF0-001 Exam. It includes RF0-001 Braindumps, As well Questions & Answers, Realistic Practice Labs, and Interactive Testing Engine.Our practice test covers the information associated with each RF0-001 exam topics in details and includes information found in no other practice test sites on the web.
Our challenging questions with Correct Answers built to simulate the actual exam. Unlimited, FREE auto-updates so you’re never behind on any topic. The whole package comes as an automatic download so there’s no waiting or shipping. Our practice test will determine you to take your RF0-001 certification exam and pass the official exam on your first try, guaranteedNow guaranteed RF0-001 exam training is available in various formats to best suit your needs and learning style. Whether you are a hands-on tactile learner, visually or even a textbook training veteran, Testpassport has the RF0-001 resources that will enable you to pass your RF0-001 test with flying colors.As with other CompTIA exams,or RF0-001 exam is structured to stack or plug into other related courses. The combination of CompTIA courses builds the complete core knowledge base you need to meet your RFID+ certification requirements.
Our on-site online training experts create all of the CompTIA RF0-001 exam products available through Testpassport. Our main goal is to get your certified with a firm understanding of the core material. Whereas other online distributors only concern themselves with helping you obtain the paper, we strive to educate the certification candidate and better prepare them for their IT career.The RF0-001 Questions and Answers as well as our other RF0-001 exam training tools are not only priced to be easy on your budget - but each one is also backed with our guarantee. Testpassport guarantees that after using our CompTIA certification training tools, you will be prepared to take and pass your RFID+ exam.
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Our on-site online training experts create all of the CompTIA RF0-001 exam products available through Testpassport. Our main goal is to get your certified with a firm understanding of the core material. Whereas other online distributors only concern themselves with helping you obtain the paper, we strive to educate the certification candidate and better prepare them for their IT career.The RF0-001 Questions and Answers as well as our other RF0-001 exam training tools are not only priced to be easy on your budget - but each one is also backed with our guarantee. Testpassport guarantees that after using our CompTIA certification training tools, you will be prepared to take and pass your RFID+ exam.
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16. The backup retention policy is configured as RECOVERY WINDOW 2. You executed the followingcommand in Recovery Manager (RMAN) against your database:RMAN> REPORT OBSOLETE;What would you see in the output?
A. a list of all the expired backups and copies
B. a list of all those files that have been deleted in the last two days
C. a list of all those files that have been recovered within the last two days
D. a list of backups and copies that are outside the range covered by the current retention policy
Answer:D
17. Last night, a media failure caused the loss of a temporary file that belongs to your database. Which two thingsmay happen this morning when you try to open your database? (Choose two.)A. The database opens normally.
B. The database prompts for a database recovery.
C. The database writer writes to a trace file, indicating that the temporary file is not found.
D. The database gets mounted and throws an error indicating that the temporary file requires recovery.
Answer:AC
18. A user executes a query on the EMP table, which contains thousands of rows, to get details about employees inone of the departments. The user receives the following error:SQL> SELECT ename FROM emp WHERE deptno=10 ORDER BY sal;SELECT ename FROM emp WHERE deptno=10 ORDER BY salERROR at line 1:ORA-01157: cannot identify/lock data file 201 - see DBWR trace fileORA-01110: data file 201: ‘/u01/app/oracle/oradata/orcl/temp01.dbf’What is a possible reason?
A. The tempfile belonging to the default temporary tablespace is missing.
B. The database is opened in restricted mode, so queries are not allowed.
C. The default temporary tablespace required to execute the query is offline.
D. The default temporary tablespace required to execute the query is dropped.
E. The default temporary tablespace required to execute the query is read-only.
Answer:A
19.You are working on a database, where you have three redo log groups. When the database is down for a backup,an operating system (OS) user deletes all the redo log files in a group. What will happen when you open yourdatabase?
A. The instance starts and the database opens because two redo log groups still exist.
B. Before the instance starts, you receive an error about the missing redo log files of a group.
C. The instance starts and the database opens with an error message written to the alert log file.
D. The instance starts and the database opens, but every attempt to write to redo log files fails with an error.
E. The instance starts, the database is mounted, but efforts to open the database fail, and an error about the missingredo log group is displayed.
Answer:E
20.A media failure has occurred. This has resulted in all the members of the next log group being renderedinaccessible to the log writer process (LGWR) at a log switch. How does this failure affect the operationalkilltest Orcal 1Z0-043killtest Help you pass any IT Exams! Page 9 of 9database?
A. The database re-creates the missing redo log files automatically.
B. The database continues to function normally with the existing files.
C. The database allows only queries; no other statements are allowed.
D. The database returns an error and the database instance shuts down.
E. The user sessions that generate redo logs are terminated automatically.
Answer:D
16. The backup retention policy is configured as RECOVERY WINDOW 2. You executed the followingcommand in Recovery Manager (RMAN) against your database:RMAN> REPORT OBSOLETE;What would you see in the output?
A. a list of all the expired backups and copies
B. a list of all those files that have been deleted in the last two days
C. a list of all those files that have been recovered within the last two days
D. a list of backups and copies that are outside the range covered by the current retention policy
Answer:D
17. Last night, a media failure caused the loss of a temporary file that belongs to your database. Which two thingsmay happen this morning when you try to open your database? (Choose two.)A. The database opens normally.
B. The database prompts for a database recovery.
C. The database writer writes to a trace file, indicating that the temporary file is not found.
D. The database gets mounted and throws an error indicating that the temporary file requires recovery.
Answer:AC
18. A user executes a query on the EMP table, which contains thousands of rows, to get details about employees inone of the departments. The user receives the following error:SQL> SELECT ename FROM emp WHERE deptno=10 ORDER BY sal;SELECT ename FROM emp WHERE deptno=10 ORDER BY salERROR at line 1:ORA-01157: cannot identify/lock data file 201 - see DBWR trace fileORA-01110: data file 201: ‘/u01/app/oracle/oradata/orcl/temp01.dbf’What is a possible reason?
A. The tempfile belonging to the default temporary tablespace is missing.
B. The database is opened in restricted mode, so queries are not allowed.
C. The default temporary tablespace required to execute the query is offline.
D. The default temporary tablespace required to execute the query is dropped.
E. The default temporary tablespace required to execute the query is read-only.
Answer:A
19.You are working on a database, where you have three redo log groups. When the database is down for a backup,an operating system (OS) user deletes all the redo log files in a group. What will happen when you open yourdatabase?
A. The instance starts and the database opens because two redo log groups still exist.
B. Before the instance starts, you receive an error about the missing redo log files of a group.
C. The instance starts and the database opens with an error message written to the alert log file.
D. The instance starts and the database opens, but every attempt to write to redo log files fails with an error.
E. The instance starts, the database is mounted, but efforts to open the database fail, and an error about the missingredo log group is displayed.
Answer:E
20.A media failure has occurred. This has resulted in all the members of the next log group being renderedinaccessible to the log writer process (LGWR) at a log switch. How does this failure affect the operationalkilltest Orcal 1Z0-043killtest Help you pass any IT Exams! Page 9 of 9database?
A. The database re-creates the missing redo log files automatically.
B. The database continues to function normally with the existing files.
C. The database allows only queries; no other statements are allowed.
D. The database returns an error and the database instance shuts down.
E. The user sessions that generate redo logs are terminated automatically.
Answer:D
Tuesday, September 23, 2008
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11. Your database is functioning in NOARCHIVELOG mode. Your database contains 15 tablespaces. You want touse Recovery Manager (RMAN) to perform backups.Which two backups would you be able to perform when the database is being accessed by users? (Choose two.)
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A. backup of offline tablespaces
B. backup of read-only tablespaces
C. backup of system-critical tablespaces
D. backup of online, locally managed tablespaces
E. backup of read/write dictionary-managed tablespaces
Answer:AB
12. Which two statements regarding compressed backups in Recovery Manager (RMAN) are true? (Choose two.)
A. Backup compression is disabled by default.
B. Backup compression applies to only backup sets.
C. Backup compression applies to only image copies.
D. Backup compression cannot be enabled using the CONFIGURE command.
E. Backup compression can be used with both backup sets and image copies.
F. Backup compression works only if the COMPATIBILITY parameter is set to 9.0.0.0 or higher.
Answer:AB
13. What purpose would you achieve by enabling the block change tracking feature?
A. eliminate the necessity for backups
B. perform optimized image copy backups
C. perform optimized incremental backups
D. enable checkpoint (CKPT) to perform checkpointing at every block change
E. enable database writer (DBWn) to write changed blocks to data files faster
Answer:C
14. You are managing a database for which incremental backups can be very time consuming. In order to performoptimized incremental backups you enable the block change tracking feature.How would you instruct RMAN to use the block change tracking feature when performing incremental backups?
A. You need to mention it with every BACKUP command.
B. You need to configure it using the CONFIGURE command.
C. The block change tracking feature is used automatically by RMAN.
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D. You need to set the necessary initialization parameters to direct RMAN to use the feature.
Answer:C
15. You executed the following command in Recovery Manager (RMAN) against your Oracle 10g database:RMAN> REPORT NEED BACKUP days 3;What would be the output of this command?A. a list of files that require a backup within three days
B. a list of files that have not been backed up for three days
C. a list of files that RMAN recommends be backed up only once in every three days, based on low volatility
D. a list of files for which a backup has already been performed and may need a backup after three days
Answer:B
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A. backup of offline tablespaces
B. backup of read-only tablespaces
C. backup of system-critical tablespaces
D. backup of online, locally managed tablespaces
E. backup of read/write dictionary-managed tablespaces
Answer:AB
12. Which two statements regarding compressed backups in Recovery Manager (RMAN) are true? (Choose two.)
A. Backup compression is disabled by default.
B. Backup compression applies to only backup sets.
C. Backup compression applies to only image copies.
D. Backup compression cannot be enabled using the CONFIGURE command.
E. Backup compression can be used with both backup sets and image copies.
F. Backup compression works only if the COMPATIBILITY parameter is set to 9.0.0.0 or higher.
Answer:AB
13. What purpose would you achieve by enabling the block change tracking feature?
A. eliminate the necessity for backups
B. perform optimized image copy backups
C. perform optimized incremental backups
D. enable checkpoint (CKPT) to perform checkpointing at every block change
E. enable database writer (DBWn) to write changed blocks to data files faster
Answer:C
14. You are managing a database for which incremental backups can be very time consuming. In order to performoptimized incremental backups you enable the block change tracking feature.How would you instruct RMAN to use the block change tracking feature when performing incremental backups?
A. You need to mention it with every BACKUP command.
B. You need to configure it using the CONFIGURE command.
C. The block change tracking feature is used automatically by RMAN.
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D. You need to set the necessary initialization parameters to direct RMAN to use the feature.
Answer:C
15. You executed the following command in Recovery Manager (RMAN) against your Oracle 10g database:RMAN> REPORT NEED BACKUP days 3;What would be the output of this command?A. a list of files that require a backup within three days
B. a list of files that have not been backed up for three days
C. a list of files that RMAN recommends be backed up only once in every three days, based on low volatility
D. a list of files for which a backup has already been performed and may need a backup after three days
Answer:B
Monday, September 22, 2008
The latest Oracle 1Z0-043 exam demo(2)
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6. In the parameter file of your production database, the CONTROL_FILE_RECORD_KEEP_TIME parameter isset to 31. What would be the impact of this setting on the backup that is being performed by using RecoveryManager (RMAN)?
A. The backup would be retained on the media for 31 days.
B. The backup would be maintained in the recovery catalog for 31 days.
C. The backup metadata would be retained in the control file for 31 days.
D. The backup metadata would be maintained in the recovery catalog for 31 days.
E. Automatic backups of the control file will be retained in the flash recovery area for 31 days.
Answer:C
7. You observe that the senior database administrator always uses the following command when connecting toRecovery Manager (RMAN), and then starts executing commands to backup the database files:$ rman target /What would be the effect of this command?
A. RMAN would use the current operating system location to place the backup.
B. RMAN would use the control file of the target database to maintain the backup.
C. RMAN would use the recovery catalog of the target database to maintain the backup.
D. RMAN would use the control file of the target database to maintain the backup metadata.
E. RMAN would use the recovery catalog of the target database to maintain the backup metadata.
Answer:D
8. You execute the following command to perform a backup by using Recovery Manager (RMAN):RMAN> run{allocate channel c1 type sbt;backup datafile 1;The command errors out. A part of the error message is as follows:RMAN-03009: failure of allocate command on c1 channelORA-19554: error allocating device, device type: SBT_TAPE, device name:What could explain why the statement failed?
A. sbt is not a valid device type.
B. Media Management Library was not loaded.
C. The sbt device cannot be used for data file backups.
D. No path was defined in the ALLOCATE CHANNEL command.
E. The channel is currently being used by another RMAN session.
Answer:B
9. View the Exhibit.You executed the following command to perform a backup of the USERS tablespace: BACKUP TABLESPACE USERS;Which three types of files are backed up? (Choose three.)
A. password file
B. online redo log files
C. the current control file
D. archived redo log files
E. the current server parameter file
F. all the data files belonging to the USERS tablespace
G. data files belonging to the USERS tablespace and all the default tablespaces
Answer:CEF
10. You executed the following command in Recovery Manager (RMAN) to perform a backup of the DETTBStablespace:RMAN> BACKUP TABLESPACE DETTBS;Under which conditions would this command execute successfully? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The database is in NOMOUNT state.
B. The database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is online.
C. The database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is offline.
D. The database is in NOARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is online.
E. The database is in NOARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is offline.
Answer:BCE
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6. In the parameter file of your production database, the CONTROL_FILE_RECORD_KEEP_TIME parameter isset to 31. What would be the impact of this setting on the backup that is being performed by using RecoveryManager (RMAN)?
A. The backup would be retained on the media for 31 days.
B. The backup would be maintained in the recovery catalog for 31 days.
C. The backup metadata would be retained in the control file for 31 days.
D. The backup metadata would be maintained in the recovery catalog for 31 days.
E. Automatic backups of the control file will be retained in the flash recovery area for 31 days.
Answer:C
7. You observe that the senior database administrator always uses the following command when connecting toRecovery Manager (RMAN), and then starts executing commands to backup the database files:$ rman target /What would be the effect of this command?
A. RMAN would use the current operating system location to place the backup.
B. RMAN would use the control file of the target database to maintain the backup.
C. RMAN would use the recovery catalog of the target database to maintain the backup.
D. RMAN would use the control file of the target database to maintain the backup metadata.
E. RMAN would use the recovery catalog of the target database to maintain the backup metadata.
Answer:D
8. You execute the following command to perform a backup by using Recovery Manager (RMAN):RMAN> run{allocate channel c1 type sbt;backup datafile 1;The command errors out. A part of the error message is as follows:RMAN-03009: failure of allocate command on c1 channelORA-19554: error allocating device, device type: SBT_TAPE, device name:What could explain why the statement failed?
A. sbt is not a valid device type.
B. Media Management Library was not loaded.
C. The sbt device cannot be used for data file backups.
D. No path was defined in the ALLOCATE CHANNEL command.
E. The channel is currently being used by another RMAN session.
Answer:B
9. View the Exhibit.You executed the following command to perform a backup of the USERS tablespace:
A. password file
B. online redo log files
C. the current control file
D. archived redo log files
E. the current server parameter file
F. all the data files belonging to the USERS tablespace
G. data files belonging to the USERS tablespace and all the default tablespaces
Answer:CEF
10. You executed the following command in Recovery Manager (RMAN) to perform a backup of the DETTBStablespace:RMAN> BACKUP TABLESPACE DETTBS;Under which conditions would this command execute successfully? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The database is in NOMOUNT state.
B. The database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is online.
C. The database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is offline.
D. The database is in NOARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is online.
E. The database is in NOARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is offline.
Answer:BCE
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1. You have set the value of the NLS_TIMESTAMP_TZ_FORMAT parameter in the parameter file toYYYY-MM-DD. The default format of which two data types would be affected by this setting? (Choose two.)
A. DATE
B. TIMESTAMP
C. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
D. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
E. TIMESTAMP WITH LOCAL TIME ZONE
Answer:BE
2. The database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode and the FORMAT option is not configured in RMAN for diskbackups. You configured the flash recovery area location and size by using the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DESTand DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST_SIZE initialization parameters.Which statement is correct in this scenario?
A. If no other destination is configured for recovery files, then RMAN places the control file autobackups in theflash recovery area by default.
B. If any local destinations for LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_n are set, then archived redo logs are stored in thesedestinations as well as in the flash recovery area.
C. If the flash recovery area location is configured using the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST initializationparameter, then the RMAN backup of Oracle managed datafiles (OMF) only will go to the flash recovery area bydefault.
D. If the FORMAT option to the RMAN BACKUP command is specified, then RMAN creates backup pieces andimage copies in the flash recovery area with names in the Oracle Managed Files (OMF) format.
Answer:A
3. You defined the Recovery Manager (RMAN) retention policy to recovery window of 7 days by executing thefollowing command:RMAN> CONFIGURE RETENTION POLICY TO RECOVERY WINDOW OF 7 DAYS;When a backup is performed, what would be the status of this backup after seven days?
A. The backup would be marked as invalid.
B. The backup would be marked as obsolete.
C. The backup would be removed from the media.
D. The backup would be removed from the RMAN repository
Answer:B
4. You set the recovery window to seven days and the backup optimization to ON using the CONFIGUREcommand of Recovery Manager (RMAN). The most recent backup of the TOOLS tablespace to disk was taken onJanuary 3. The TOOLS tablespace is read-only.On February 21, when you execute a command to back up all the tablespaces to disk, you find that RMAN backsup the TOOLS tablespace also, even though the contents of the tablespace have not changed after the backup onJanuary 3.Because there are no changes made to the TOOLS tablespace, you decide that the tablespace should not be backedup by RMAN. What can you to do skip backing up the TOOLS tablespace without changing the current backupoptimization setting?
A. configure a default device for RMAN backups
B. temporarily disable the retention policy for RMAN backups
C. configure automatic channel allocation for RMAN backups
D. use the CONFIGURE command to reconfigure the recovery window to 60 days
Answer:B
5. In Recovery Manager (RMAN), you have set control file autobackup to ON by using the following command:CONFIGURE CONTROLFILE AUTOBACKUP ON;Which two events would cause the control file to be backed up automatically? (Choose two.)
A. a tablespace is taken offline
B. the database instance is restarted
C. a new data file is added to an existing tablespace
D. a successful backup is recorded in the RMAN repository
E. the RMAN connection is disconnected from the target database
Answer:CD
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1. You have set the value of the NLS_TIMESTAMP_TZ_FORMAT parameter in the parameter file toYYYY-MM-DD. The default format of which two data types would be affected by this setting? (Choose two.)
A. DATE
B. TIMESTAMP
C. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
D. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
E. TIMESTAMP WITH LOCAL TIME ZONE
Answer:BE
2. The database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode and the FORMAT option is not configured in RMAN for diskbackups. You configured the flash recovery area location and size by using the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DESTand DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST_SIZE initialization parameters.Which statement is correct in this scenario?
A. If no other destination is configured for recovery files, then RMAN places the control file autobackups in theflash recovery area by default.
B. If any local destinations for LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_n are set, then archived redo logs are stored in thesedestinations as well as in the flash recovery area.
C. If the flash recovery area location is configured using the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST initializationparameter, then the RMAN backup of Oracle managed datafiles (OMF) only will go to the flash recovery area bydefault.
D. If the FORMAT option to the RMAN BACKUP command is specified, then RMAN creates backup pieces andimage copies in the flash recovery area with names in the Oracle Managed Files (OMF) format.
Answer:A
3. You defined the Recovery Manager (RMAN) retention policy to recovery window of 7 days by executing thefollowing command:RMAN> CONFIGURE RETENTION POLICY TO RECOVERY WINDOW OF 7 DAYS;When a backup is performed, what would be the status of this backup after seven days?
A. The backup would be marked as invalid.
B. The backup would be marked as obsolete.
C. The backup would be removed from the media.
D. The backup would be removed from the RMAN repository
Answer:B
4. You set the recovery window to seven days and the backup optimization to ON using the CONFIGUREcommand of Recovery Manager (RMAN). The most recent backup of the TOOLS tablespace to disk was taken onJanuary 3. The TOOLS tablespace is read-only.On February 21, when you execute a command to back up all the tablespaces to disk, you find that RMAN backsup the TOOLS tablespace also, even though the contents of the tablespace have not changed after the backup onJanuary 3.Because there are no changes made to the TOOLS tablespace, you decide that the tablespace should not be backedup by RMAN. What can you to do skip backing up the TOOLS tablespace without changing the current backupoptimization setting?
A. configure a default device for RMAN backups
B. temporarily disable the retention policy for RMAN backups
C. configure automatic channel allocation for RMAN backups
D. use the CONFIGURE command to reconfigure the recovery window to 60 days
Answer:B
5. In Recovery Manager (RMAN), you have set control file autobackup to ON by using the following command:CONFIGURE CONTROLFILE AUTOBACKUP ON;Which two events would cause the control file to be backed up automatically? (Choose two.)
A. a tablespace is taken offline
B. the database instance is restarted
C. a new data file is added to an existing tablespace
D. a successful backup is recorded in the RMAN repository
E. the RMAN connection is disconnected from the target database
Answer:CD
Saturday, September 20, 2008
CompTIA Linux+ update
CompTIA training has become so popular today that you will often find many CompTIA courses and online CompTIA training resources being offered in your city, regardless of where you live on this planet. To become an CompTIA Professional, you will need to learn all the CompTIA test objectives. Study them with the use of an CompTIA guide and then test and evaluate your knowledge via our leading edge CompTIA training resources.
"The U.S. Navy's Information Assurance Workforce relies on certifications, such as CompTIA Linux+, to meet the Department of Defense 8570.1 strategy for secure Naval Networks" said Mike Knight, Navy Network Warfare Command.
The update process will begin this summer with a Job Task Analysis (JTA), scheduled for July. The JTA will bring together subject matter experts in Linux to evaluate the job roles and tasks for IT professionals who work with open source operating systems. This information will then be used to update the content of the CompTIA Linux+ certification exam.
The update of CompTIA Linux+ is in keeping with CompTIA's practice of continuous and ongoing review of its certification content. This assures that the certification exams address the latest changes in technology and reflect the skills needed by tech workers and required by employers.
Increasing demand for open source solutions and Linux skills is evident in many markets and industries. There is also increasing market demand for CompTIA Linux+ certified professionals; for example, among large global IT service companies that have integrated CompTIA Linux+ into their training and certification programs. In addition, the United States Navy now recommends CompTIA Linux+ as an option for its information assurance personnel.
"The U.S. Navy's Information Assurance Workforce relies on certifications, such as CompTIA Linux+, to meet the Department of Defense 8570.1 strategy for secure Naval Networks" said Mike Knight, Navy Network Warfare Command.
The update process will begin this summer with a Job Task Analysis (JTA), scheduled for July. The JTA will bring together subject matter experts in Linux to evaluate the job roles and tasks for IT professionals who work with open source operating systems. This information will then be used to update the content of the CompTIA Linux+ certification exam.
The update of CompTIA Linux+ is in keeping with CompTIA's practice of continuous and ongoing review of its certification content. This assures that the certification exams address the latest changes in technology and reflect the skills needed by tech workers and required by employers.
Increasing demand for open source solutions and Linux skills is evident in many markets and industries. There is also increasing market demand for CompTIA Linux+ certified professionals; for example, among large global IT service companies that have integrated CompTIA Linux+ into their training and certification programs. In addition, the United States Navy now recommends CompTIA Linux+ as an option for its information assurance personnel.
Friday, September 19, 2008
Key benefits for becoming CompTIA A+ certified
Key benefits for becoming CompTIA A+ certified:
A solid credential that makes you more marketable, leading to better job opportunities.
Top technology companies including CompuCom and IBM have made CompTIA A+ certification mandatory for their service technicians. Additionally, more than 100 companies now require CompTIA A+ certification as a prerequisite to qualify for their corporate and vendor-specific training programs.
Credibility and respect in the workplace.
Nearly 71 percent of certified professionals say that credentials give them more prestige among their colleagues.
Validation of achievement in an industry-valued skill.
CompTIA A+ is an opportunity for individuals to earn the credential that proves their competency in core hardware and operating system technologies including installation, configuration, diagnosing, preventive maintenance and basic networking.
Increased knowledge, leading to increased job satisfaction.
Ninety-three percent of CompTIA certified IT professionals feel their customers are in qualified hands, and 84 percent say they have the confidence and required skills to do a superior job.
Viable career path, leading to higher level positions.
Seventy-four percent of IT managers say a CompTIA certification is an important factor in considering an employee for a promotion.
A solid credential that makes you more marketable, leading to better job opportunities.
Top technology companies including CompuCom and IBM have made CompTIA A+ certification mandatory for their service technicians. Additionally, more than 100 companies now require CompTIA A+ certification as a prerequisite to qualify for their corporate and vendor-specific training programs.
Credibility and respect in the workplace.
Nearly 71 percent of certified professionals say that credentials give them more prestige among their colleagues.
Validation of achievement in an industry-valued skill.
CompTIA A+ is an opportunity for individuals to earn the credential that proves their competency in core hardware and operating system technologies including installation, configuration, diagnosing, preventive maintenance and basic networking.
Increased knowledge, leading to increased job satisfaction.
Ninety-three percent of CompTIA certified IT professionals feel their customers are in qualified hands, and 84 percent say they have the confidence and required skills to do a superior job.
Viable career path, leading to higher level positions.
Seventy-four percent of IT managers say a CompTIA certification is an important factor in considering an employee for a promotion.
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